Thanks, triggers are new turf for me so nothing is quite obvious. I thought,
the after insert change is snuck in after the rec is created and via some
built in behavior allows mods to the rec without triggering a cascade. But
the reality makes sense and of course I can adjust my work to handle in
novnov <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
> The function is meant to find a value via the internal sql, and then update
> a column in the same tabled that invoked the trigger with that value. Is
> that a non-workable scenario? IE, an after insert trigger can't modify a
> column in the same table that was
I have been able to spend some more time working on this and have made a bit
of progress.
I had the trigger set to run before insert; and the sql inside the trigger
needed to ref the new record in order to supply a value. I think that's why
the first try always applied a null value.
So I've chan
On Wed, Aug 08, 2007 at 03:20:00PM -0700, novnov wrote:
>
> I know that would be best but it'd be a major undertaking to try to repro
> this situation. I was hoping for some hints, 'it sounds like xyz', because
> I'm pretty sure I'm just tripping over a commonplace issue.
It doesn't have to be re
I know that would be best but it'd be a major undertaking to try to repro
this situation. I was hoping for some hints, 'it sounds like xyz', because
I'm pretty sure I'm just tripping over a commonplace issue.
Rodrigo De León-2 wrote:
>
> On Aug 8, 3:20 pm, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (novnov) wrote:
>> .
On Aug 8, 3:20 pm, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (novnov) wrote:
> ... I also don't understand ...
DDL + sample data, please...
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