On 6/8/19 11:38 AM, lgod...@gmail.com wrote:
> For f1 defined as func f1(k1, k2, k3 int) (x1, x2 int) {..}
> and f2 defined as func f2(x,y int) (xR int) {..}
>
> Why does the compiler complain about the call stmt
> f2 ( f1 (1,2,3) ) ??
>
It shouldn't. What little you posted is
On Tue, Aug 6, 2019 at 1:38 PM wrote:
> For f1 defined as func f1(k1, k2, k3 int) (x1, x2 int) {..}
> and f2 defined as func f2(x,y int) (xR int) {..}
>
> Why does the compiler complain about the call stmt
> f2 ( f1 (1,2,3) ) ??
>
I'm not sure what you're asking.
The compiler
For f1 defined as func f1(k1, k2, k3 int) (x1, x2 int) {..}
and f2 defined as func f2(x,y int) (xR int) {..}
Why does the compiler complain about the call stmt
f2 ( f1 (1,2,3) ) ??
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