Here are some examples: > > (equal? #'(lambda (x) x) #'(lambda (x) x)) > #f > > (define so #'(lambda (x) x)) > > (equal? so so) > #t
Are syntax objects mutable? If so, how would you define a function like eq? say syntax-eq? without using the built-in equality? Are syntax objects immutable? Why should they be immutable? How does equal? work on such structures normally? See HtDP on extensional and intensional equality. -- Matthias On Aug 7, 2014, at 5:58 PM, Alexander D. Knauth wrote: > How does equal? determine whether two syntax objects are equal? > > Does it simply use eq?, or does it check the syntax-e, lexical context, > srcloc and properties? > > > > ____________________ > Racket Users list: > http://lists.racket-lang.org/users ____________________ Racket Users list: http://lists.racket-lang.org/users
