On 2018-07-06 19:18, Berry, Charles wrote:
A liitle math goes along way. See below.
On Jul 5, 2018, at 10:35 PM, Marino David
<davidmarino...@gmail.com> wrote:
Dear Bert,
I know it is a simple question. But for me, at current, I fail to
implement it. So, I ask for help here.
It is not homework.
Best,
David
2018-07-06 13:32 GMT+08:00 Bert Gunter <bgunter.4...@gmail.com>:
Is this homework?
(There is an informal no-homework policy on this list).
Cheers, Bert
Bert Gunter
"The trouble with having an open mind is that people keep coming
along and sticking things into it." -- Opus (aka Berkeley
Breathed in his "Bloom County" comic strip )
On Thu, Jul 5, 2018 at 10:23 PM, Marino David
<davidmarino...@gmail.com> wrote:
Dear All,
I would like to generate N random Bernoulli draws given a
probability function F(x)=1-exp(-2.5*x) in which x follows
uniform distribution, say x~U(0,2).
If each Bernoulli draw is based on its own draw of x, then
rbinom( N, 1, 0.8013476 )
is what you want.
Maybe it is what he wants, but note that F(x) as defined is a random
variable, not a (cumulative) probability function.
G,
It is left as an exercise for the reader to verify that the constant
0.8013476 is correct up to approximation error, and to prove that
such a Bernoulli mixture is also Bernoulli. Perhaps,
?integrate
will help.
But if the x's are shared you need to use runif, expm1, and
(possibly) rep to produce a vector to be used in place of the prob
argument.
HTH,
Chuck
Can some one leave me some code lines for implementing this?
Thanks in advance.
David
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