(11/04/29 22:09), Frank Harrell wrote:
Yes I would select that as the final model.

Thank you for your comment. I am able to be confident about my model now.

The difference you saw is caused
by different treatment of penalization of factor variables, related to the
use of the sum squared differences between the estimate at one category from
the average over all categories.  I think that as long as you code it one
way consistently and pick the penalty using that coding you are OK.  But if
the coefficients of the non-factor variables depend on how the binary
predictor is coded, there is a bit more concern.

A lot of previous studies have demonstrated that poor outcome is more frequent in treat2 than in treat 1. So, I coded treat1 as 0, and treat2 as 1 in the first mail. Then, I came back to the original coding of treat1 and treat2 in the newer mail. According to your answer, I guess I am OK. :-)

Prof Harrell, Your book (Rregression Modeling Strategies) and many kind comments helped me a lot. Thank you very much again.

--
KH


Frank


細田弘吉 wrote:

Thank you for you quick reply, Prof. Harrell.
According to your advice, I ran pentrace using a very wide range.

  >  pentrace.x6factor<- pentrace(x6factor.lrm, seq(0, 100, by=0.5))
  >  plot(pentrace.x6factor)

I attached this figure. Then,

  >  pentrace.x6factor<- pentrace(x6factor.lrm, seq(0, 10, by=0.05))

It seems reasonable that the best penalty is 2.55.

  >  x6factor.lrm.pen<- update(x6factor.lrm, penalty=2.55)
  >  cbind(coef(x6factor.lrm), coef(x6factor.lrm.pen),
abs(coef(x6factor.lrm)-coef(x6factor.lrm.pen)))
                       [,1]        [,2]        [,3]
Intercept     -4.32434556 -3.86816460 0.456180958
stenosis      -0.01496757 -0.01091755 0.004050025
T1             3.04248257  2.42443034 0.618052225
T2            -0.75335619 -0.57194342 0.181412767
procedure     -1.20847252 -0.82589263 0.382579892
ClinicalScore  0.37623189  0.30524628 0.070985611

  >  validate(x6factor.lrm, bw=F, B=200)
            index.orig training    test optimism index.corrected   n
Dxy           0.6324   0.6849  0.5955   0.0894          0.5430 200
R2            0.3668   0.4220  0.3231   0.0989          0.2679 200
Intercept     0.0000   0.0000 -0.1924   0.1924         -0.1924 200
Slope         1.0000   1.0000  0.7796   0.2204          0.7796 200
Emax          0.0000   0.0000  0.0915   0.0915          0.0915 200
D             0.2716   0.3229  0.2339   0.0890          0.1826 200
U            -0.0192  -0.0192  0.0243  -0.0436          0.0243 200
Q             0.2908   0.3422  0.2096   0.1325          0.1582 200
B             0.1272   0.1171  0.1357  -0.0186          0.1457 200
g             1.6328   1.9879  1.4940   0.4939          1.1389 200
gp            0.2367   0.2502  0.2216   0.0286          0.2080 200


  >  validate(x6factor.lrm.pen, bw=F, B=200)
            index.orig training    test optimism index.corrected   n
Dxy           0.6375   0.6857  0.6024   0.0833          0.5542 200
R2            0.3145   0.3488  0.3267   0.0221          0.2924 200
Intercept     0.0000   0.0000  0.0882  -0.0882          0.0882 200
Slope         1.0000   1.0000  1.0923  -0.0923          1.0923 200
Emax          0.0000   0.0000  0.0340   0.0340          0.0340 200
D             0.2612   0.2571  0.2370   0.0201          0.2411 200
U            -0.0192  -0.0192 -0.0047  -0.0145         -0.0047 200
Q             0.2805   0.2763  0.2417   0.0346          0.2458 200
B             0.1292   0.1224  0.1355  -0.0132          0.1423 200
g             1.2704   1.3917  1.5019  -0.1102          1.3805 200
gp            0.2020   0.2091  0.2229  -0.0138          0.2158 200

In the penalized model (x6factor.lrm.pen), the apparent Dxy is 0.64, and
bias-corrected Dxy is 0.55. The maximum absolute error is estimated to
be 0.034, smaller than non-penalized model (0.0915 in x6factor.lrm) The
changes in slope and intercept are substantially reduced in penalized
model. I think overfitting is improved at least to some extent. Should I
select this as a final model?

I have one more question. The "procedure" variable was defined as 0/1
value in the previous mail. For some graphical reason, I redefined it as
treat1/treat2 value. Then, the best penalty value was changed from 3.05
to 2.55. I guess change from numeric to factorial caused this reduction
in penalty. Which set up should I select?

I appreciate your help in advance.

--
KH

(11/04/26 0:21), Frank Harrell wrote:
You've done a lot of good work on this.  Yes I would say you have
moderate
overfitting with the first model.  The only thing that saved you from
having
severe overfitting is that there seems to be a signal present [I am
assume
this model is truly pre-specified and was not developed at all by looking
at
patterns of responses Y.]

The use of backwards stepdown demonstrated much worse overfitting.  This
is
in line with what we know about the damage of stepwise selection methods
that do not incorporate shrinkage.  I would throw away the stepwise
regression model.  You'll find that the model selected is entirely
arbitrary.  And you can't use the "selected" variables in any re-fit of
the
model, i.e., you can't use lrm pretending that the two remaining
variables
were pre-specified.  Stepwise regression methods only seem to help.  When
assessed properly we see that is an illusion.

You are using penalizing properly but you did not print the full table of
penalties vs. effective AIC.  We don't have faith that you penalized
enough.
I tend to run pentrace using a very wide range of possible penalties to
make
sure I've found the global optimum.

Penalization somewhat solves the EPV problem but there is no substitute
for
getting more data.

You can run validate specifying your final penalty as an argument.

Frank



細田弘吉 wrote:

According to the advice, I tried rms package.
Just to make sure, I have data of 104 patients (x6.df), which consists
of 5 explanatory variables and one binary outcome (poor/good) (previous
model 2 strategy). The outcome consists of 25 poor results and 79 good
results. Therefore, My events per variable (EPV) is only 5 (much less
than the rule of thumb of 10).

My questions are about validate and pentrace in rms package.
I present some codes and results.
I appreciate anybody's help in advance.

   >   x6.lrm<- lrm(outcome ~ stenosis+x1+x2+procedure+ClinicalScore,
data=x6.df, x=T, y=T)

   >   x6.lrm
...
Obs  104    LR chi2      29.24    R2       0.367    C       0.816
    negative 79    d.f.         5    g        1.633    Dxy     0.632
    positive 25    Pr(>   chi2)<0.0001   gr    5.118    gamma   0.632
max |deriv| 1e-08                    gp    0.237    tau-a   0.233
                                        Brier   0.127

                  Coef    S.E.   Wald Z Pr(>|Z|)
Intercept      -5.5328 2.6287 -2.10  0.0353
stenosis       -0.0150 0.0284 -0.53  0.5979
x1              3.0425 0.9100  3.34  0.0008
x2             -0.7534 0.4519 -1.67  0.0955
procedure       1.2085 0.5717  2.11  0.0345
ClinicalScore   0.3762 0.2287  1.65  0.0999

It seems not too bad. Next, validation by bootstrap ...

   >   validate(x6.lrm, B=200, bw=F)
             index.orig training    test optimism index.corrected   n
Dxy           0.6324   0.6960  0.5870   0.1091          0.5233 200
R2            0.3668   0.4370  0.3154   0.1216          0.2453 200
Intercept     0.0000   0.0000 -0.2007   0.2007         -0.2007 200
Slope         1.0000   1.0000  0.7565   0.2435          0.7565 200
Emax          0.0000   0.0000  0.0999   0.0999          0.0999 200
D             0.2716   0.3368  0.2275   0.1093          0.1623 200
U            -0.0192  -0.0192  0.0369  -0.0561          0.0369 200
Q             0.2908   0.3560  0.1906   0.1654          0.1254 200
B             0.1272   0.1155  0.1384  -0.0229          0.1501 200
g             1.6328   2.0740  1.4647   0.6093          1.0235 200
gp            0.2367   0.2529  0.2189   0.0341          0.2026 200

The apparent Dxy is 0.63, and bias-corrected Dxy is 0.52. The maximum
absolute error is estimated to be 0.099. The changes in slope and
intercept are also more substantial. In all, there is evidence that I am
somewhat overfitting the data, right?.

Furthermore, using step-down variable selection ...

   >   validate(x6.lrm, B=200, bw=T)

                Backwards Step-down - Original Model

    Deleted        Chi-Sq d.f. P      Residual d.f. P      AIC
    stenosis       0.28   1    0.5979 0.28     1    0.5979 -1.72
    ClinicalScore  2.60   1    0.1068 2.88     2    0.2370 -1.12
    x2             2.86   1    0.0910 5.74     3    0.1252 -0.26

Approximate Estimates after Deleting Factors

                Coef   S.E. Wald Z         P
Intercept  -5.865 1.4136 -4.149 3.336e-05
x1          2.915 0.8685  3.357 7.889e-04
procedure   1.072 0.5590  1.918 5.508e-02

Factors in Final Model

[1] x1         procedure
             index.orig training    test optimism index.corrected   n
Dxy           0.5661   0.6755  0.5559   0.1196          0.4464 200
R2            0.2876   0.4085  0.2784   0.1301          0.1575 200
Intercept     0.0000   0.0000 -0.2459   0.2459         -0.2459 200
Slope         1.0000   1.0000  0.7300   0.2700          0.7300 200
Emax          0.0000   0.0000  0.1173   0.1173          0.1173 200
D             0.2038   0.3130  0.1970   0.1160          0.0877 200
U            -0.0192  -0.0192  0.0382  -0.0574          0.0382 200
Q             0.2230   0.3323  0.1589   0.1734          0.0496 200
B             0.1441   0.1192  0.1452  -0.0261          0.1702 200
g             1.2628   1.9524  1.3222   0.6302          0.6326 199
gp            0.2041   0.2430  0.2043   0.0387          0.1654 199

If I select only two variables (x1 and procedure), bias-corrected Dxy
goes down to 0.45.

[Question 1]
I have EPV problem. Even so, should I keep the full model (5-variable
model)? or can I use the 2-variable (x1 and procedure) model which the
validate() with step-down provides?

[Question 2]
If I use 2-variable model, should I do
x2.lrm<- lrm(postopDWI_HI ~ T1+procedure2, data=x6.df, x=T, y=T)?
or keep the value showed above by validate function?

Next, shrinkage ...

   >   pentrace(x6.lrm, seq(0, 5.0, by=0.05))
Best penalty:
penalty         df
      3.05   4.015378

The best penalty is 3.05. So, I update it with this penalty to obtain
the corresponding penalized model:

   >   x6.lrm.pen<- update(x6.lrm, penalty=3.05, x=T, y=T)
   >   x6.lrm.pen
.....
Penalty factors

    simple nonlinear interaction nonlinear.interaction
      3.05      3.05        3.05                  3.05
Final penalty on -2 log L
        [,1]
[1,]  3.8

Obs     104    LR chi2      28.18    R2       0.313    C       0.818
    negative    79    d.f.     4.015    g        1.264    Dxy     0.635
    positive    25   Pr(>   chi2)<0.0001 gr       3.538    gamma   0.637
max |deriv| 3e-05                    gp       0.201    tau-a   0.234
                                        Brier    0.129

                  Coef    S.E.   Wald Z Pr(>|Z|) Penalty Scale
Intercept      -4.7246 2.2429 -2.11  0.0352    0.0000
stenosis       -0.0105 0.0240 -0.44  0.6621   17.8021
x1              2.3605 0.7254  3.25  0.0011    0.6054
x2             -0.5385 0.3653 -1.47  0.1404    1.2851
procedure       0.9247 0.4844  1.91  0.0563    0.8576
ClinicalScore   0.3046 0.1874  1.63  0.1041    2.4779

Arrange the coefficients of the two models side by side, and also list
the difference between the two:

   >   cbind(coef(x6.lrm), coef(x6.lrm.pen),
abs(coef(x6.lrm)-coef(x6.lrm.pen)))
                         [,1]        [,2]        [,3]
Intercept      -5.53281808 -4.72464766 0.808170417
stenosis       -0.01496757 -0.01050797 0.004459599
x1              3.04248257  2.36051833 0.681964238
x2             -0.75335619 -0.53854750 0.214808685
procedure       1.20847252  0.92474708 0.283725441
ClinicalScore   0.37623189  0.30457557 0.071656322

[Question 3]
Is this penalized model the one I should present for my colleagues?
I still have EPV problem. Or is EPV problem O.K. if I use penalization?

I am still wondering about what I can do to avoid EPV problem.
Collecting new data would be a long-time and huge work...


(11/04/22 1:46), [email protected] wrote:
Thank you for your comment.
I forgot to mention that varclus and pvclust showed similar results for
my data.

BTW, I did not realize rms is a replacement for the Design package.
I appreciate your suggestion.
--
KH

(11/04/21 8:00), Frank Harrell wrote:
I think it's OK. You can also use the Hmisc package's varclus
function.
Frank


細田弘吉 wrote:

Dear Prof. Harrel,

Thank you very much for your quick advice.
I will try rms package.

Regarding model reduction, is my model 2 method (clustering and
recoding
that are blinded to the outcome) permissible?

Sincerely,

--
KH

(11/04/20 22:01), Frank Harrell wrote:
Deleting variables is a bad idea unless you make that a formal part
of
the
BMA so that the attempt to delete variables is penalized for.
Instead of
BMA I recommend simple penalized maximum likelihood estimation (see
the
lrm
function in the rms package) or pre-modeling data reduction that is
blinded
to the outcome variable.
Frank


細田弘吉 wrote:

Hi everybody,
I apologize for long mail in advance.

I have data of 104 patients, which consists of 15 explanatory
variables
and one binary outcome (poor/good). The outcome consists of 25 poor
results and 79 good results. I tried to analyze the data with
logistic
regression. However, the 15 variables and 25 events means events
per
variable (EPV) is much less than 10 (rule of thumb). Therefore, I
used R
package, "BMA" to perform logistic regression with BMA to avoid
this
problem.

model 1 (full model):
x1, x2, x3, x4 are continuous variables and others are binary data.

x16.bic.glm<- bic.glm(outcome ~ ., data=x16.df,
glm.family="binomial", OR20, strict=FALSE)
summary(x16.bic.glm)
(The output below has been cut off at the right edge to save space)

62 models were selected
Best 5 models (cumulative posterior probability = 0.3606 ):

p!=0 EV SD model 1 model2
Intercept 100 -5.1348545 1.652424 -4.4688 -5.15
-5.1536
age 3.3 0.0001634 0.007258 .
sex 4.0
.M -0.0243145 0.220314 .
side 10.8
.R 0.0811227 0.301233 .
procedure 46.9 -0.5356894 0.685148 . -1.163
symptom 3.8 -0.0099438 0.129690 . .
stenosis 3.4 -0.0003343 0.005254 .
x1 3.7 -0.0061451 0.144084 .
x2 100.0 3.1707661 0.892034 3.2221 3.11
x3 51.3 -0.4577885 0.551466 -0.9154 .
HT 4.6
.positive 0.0199299 0.161769 . .
DM 3.3
.positive -0.0019986 0.105910 . .
IHD 3.5
.positive 0.0077626 0.122593 . .
smoking 9.1
.positive 0.0611779 0.258402 . .
hyperlipidemia 16.0
.positive 0.1784293 0.512058 . .
x4 8.2 0.0607398 0.267501 . .


nVar 2 2
1 3 3
BIC -376.9082
-376.5588 -376.3094 -375.8468 -374.5582
post prob 0.104
0.087 0.077 0.061 0.032

[Question 1]
Is it O.K to calculate odds ratio and its 95% confidence interval
from
"EV" (posterior distribution mean) and“SD”(posterior distribution
standard deviation)?
For example, 95%CI of EV of x2 can be calculated as;
exp(3.1707661)
[1] 23.82573 ----->   odds ratio
exp(3.1707661+1.96*0.892034)
[1] 136.8866
exp(3.1707661-1.96*0.892034)
[1] 4.146976
------------------>   95%CI (4.1 to 136.9)
Is this O.K.?

[Question 2]
Is it permissible to delete variables with small value of "p!=0"
and
"EV", such as age (3.3% and 0.0001634) to reduce the number of
explanatory variables and reconstruct new model without those
variables
for new session of BMA?

model 2 (reduced model):
I used R package, "pvclust", to reduce the model. The result
suggested
x1, x2 and x4 belonged to the same cluster, so I picked up only x2.
Based on the subject knowledge, I made a simple unweighted sum, by
counting the number of clinical features. For 9 features (sex,
side,
HT2, hyperlipidemia, DM, IHD, smoking, symptom, age), the sum
ranges
from 0 to 9. This score was defined as ClinicalScore. Consequently,
I
made up new data set (x6.df), which consists of 5 variables
(stenosis,
x2, x3, procedure, and ClinicalScore) and one binary outcome
(poor/good). Then, for alternative BMA session...

BMAx6.glm<- bic.glm(postopDWI_HI ~ ., data=x6.df,
glm.family="binomial", OR=20, strict=FALSE)
summary(BMAx6.glm)
(The output below has been cut off at the right edge to save space)
Call:
bic.glm.formula(f = postopDWI_HI ~ ., data = x6.df, glm.family =
"binomial", strict = FALSE, OR = 20)


13 models were selected
Best 5 models (cumulative posterior probability = 0.7626 ):

p!=0 EV SD model 1 model 2
Intercept 100 -5.6918362 1.81220 -4.4688 -6.3166
stenosis 8.1 -0.0008417 0.00815 . .
x2 100.0 3.0606165 0.87765 3.2221 3.1154
x3 46.5 -0.3998864 0.52688 -0.9154 .
procedure 49.3 0.5747013 0.70164 . 1.1631
ClinicalScore 27.1 0.0966633 0.19645 . .


nVar 2 2 1
3 3
BIC -376.9082 -376.5588
-376.3094 -375.8468 -375.5025
post prob 0.208 0.175
0.154 0.122 0.103

[Question 3]
Am I doing it correctly or not?
I mean this kind of model reduction is permissible for BMA?

[Question 4]
I still have 5 variables, which violates the rule of thumb, "EPV>
10".
Is it permissible to delete "stenosis" variable because of small
value
of "EV"? Or is it O.K. because this is BMA?

Sorry for long post.

I appreciate your help very much in advance.

--
KH

______________________________________________
[email protected] mailing list
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PLEASE do read the posting guide
http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html
and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.



-----
Frank Harrell
Department of Biostatistics, Vanderbilt University
--
View this message in context:
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______________________________________________
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PLEASE do read the posting guide
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and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.



-----
Frank Harrell
Department of Biostatistics, Vanderbilt University
--
View this message in context:
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______________________________________________
[email protected] mailing list
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PLEASE do read the posting guide
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and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.


--
*************************************************
 神戸大学大学院医学研究科 脳神経外科学分野
 細田 弘吉
 
 〒650-0017 神戸市中央区楠町7丁目5-1
      Phone: 078-382-5966
      Fax  : 078-382-5979
      E-mail address
          Office: [email protected]
        Home  : [email protected]
*************************************************

______________________________________________
[email protected] mailing list
https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help
PLEASE do read the posting guide
http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html
and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.



-----
Frank Harrell
Department of Biostatistics, Vanderbilt University
--
View this message in context: 
http://r.789695.n4.nabble.com/BMA-logistic-regression-odds-ratio-model-reduction-etc-tp3462416p3483634.html
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______________________________________________
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PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html
and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.


--
*************************************************
 神戸大学大学院医学研究科 脳神経外科学分野
 細田 弘吉
 
 〒650-0017 神戸市中央区楠町7丁目5-1
    Phone: 078-382-5966
    Fax  : 078-382-5979
    E-mail address
        Office: [email protected]
        Home  : [email protected]

______________________________________________
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