hello, i did several binomial tests and noticed for one sparse dataset that binom.test(1,1,0.5) gives a p-value of 1 for the null, what i can't quite grasp. that would say that the a prob of 1/2 has p-value of 0 ?? - i must be wrong but can't figure out the right interpretation..
best, kay ----- ------------------------ Kay Cichini Postgraduate student Institute of Botany Univ. of Innsbruck ------------------------ -- View this message in context: http://r.789695.n4.nabble.com/general-question-on-binomial-test-sign-test-tp2419965p2419965.html Sent from the R help mailing list archive at Nabble.com. ______________________________________________ R-help@r-project.org mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.
