"Mike Meyer" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message
news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Another straw man. I'm not trying to oblitarate that difference
No matter how many times I quote to you where you specifically do
exactly this, you insist you aren't. Yes, you are. You equate metaphorical
force with actual physical force. You say the difference doesn't matter
because the end result can be the same. Why point out that what's important
is that the end result is the same if you're not trying to obliterate the
difference?
Here's a quote from you:
>>>But in
>>>that case, the fact that I didn't use "force" against you is
>>>irrelevant to you - you're just as dead.
Why point out that the difference is irrelevant if not to obliterate the
difference? What possible other purpose could you have in that comment?
> I'm trying to find out why you regularly ignore that difference for
> everyone but MS.
To substantiate that claim, you'd have to point to some cases where I
talk about something other than MS. But if you do a little research, you'll
find I'm completely consistent and have said similar things about numerour
other entities.
I consistently and always distinguish between the severe inter-personal
wrongs (actual force, the threat of force, and fraud) and activities that do
not fall into this category. I always complain loudly when people (such as
you) seek to blur this distinction. Even the term "economic force" (used the
way you use) it is an attempt to blur this distinction, because you equate
the metaphorical use of market force with the actual use of coercive
physical force.
DS
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