On 2005-10-07, DaveM <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >>For example: In British English one uses a plural verb when the >>subject consists of more than one person. Sports teams, >>government departments, states, corporations etc. are >>grammatically plural. In American, the verb agrees with the >>word that is the subject, not how many people are denoted by >>that word. >> >>In sports (thats "sport" for you Brits): > > Yes. > >> American: Minnesota is behind 7-0. The Vikings are behind 7-0. >> British: Minnesota are behind 7-0. The Vikings are behind 7-0. > > True. > >>In politics: > >> American: The war department has decided to cancel the program. >> British: The war department have decided to cancel the program. > > Not sure about this one. They may be used interchangeably as neither strikes > me as sounding "odd".
It could be that both are used in British English and I only notice the "have" usage. In US English it's always "has" because "deptartment" is considered singular: "departement has" and "departements have" For some reason I find this sort of thing fascinating enough to have download the entire "story of English" series off Usenet... -- Grant Edwards grante Yow! Yow! Now we can at become alcoholics! visi.com -- http://mail.python.org/mailman/listinfo/python-list