On Sat, Apr 18, 2015 at 3:05 AM, BartC <b...@freeuk.com> wrote: > (Actually *I* would quite like to know why languages don't have switchable > syntax anyway to allow for people's personal preferences.)
Why do it? What's the advantage of calling two different syntaxes one language? Simpler to just call them two separate languages - maybe two languages that share some sort of runtime, but two languages. For instance, Java bytecode doesn't have to be created from Java source code, but we don't consider NetRexx to be a "switchable syntax" for Java. It's a completely separate language that compiles to a .class file. ChrisA -- https://mail.python.org/mailman/listinfo/python-list
