On Fri, May 7, 2010 at 11:13 AM, Chris Rebert <pyid...@rebertia.com> wrote:
> On Thu, May 6, 2010 at 5:43 PM, Mathias Panzenböck > <grosser.meister.mo...@gmx.net> wrote: > > Shouldn't by mathematical definition -x // y be the same as -(x // y)? > > I think this rather odd. Is there any deeper reason to this behaviour? I > > guess changing this will break a lot of code, but why does it behave like > > this? > > I would suppose it's what programmers have found more > useful/intuitive. Most programmers aren't number theorists. > Yeah, I was stinged by that before, too. I really don't find it intuitive at all - to keep the modulos remainer equal, you lose on negations and possibly integer equality. Ah well, too bad I didn't invent Python. =]. Cheers, Xav
-- http://mail.python.org/mailman/listinfo/python-list
