Michael schrieb: > A bit more info, but still no clear picture about why functions are > mutable but have immutable copy symantics. There are arguments why > functions should be immutable, but the decision was to make user- > defined functions mutable. My question is still: why the present > ummutable copy symantics?
The answer is really really simple. The implementation of copy predates mutability. When the copy code was written, functions *were* immutable. When functions became mutable, the copy code was not changed, and nobody noticed or complained. Regards, Martin -- http://mail.python.org/mailman/listinfo/python-list
