Which begs the question, why does PHP see a '?>' in a '//' comment line, but
not in a multi-line comment, e.g., /* ?> */ ?

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Ed Gorski [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Tuesday, May 28, 2002 2:46 PM
> To: Leotta Natalie (NCI/IMS); 'Jonathan Rosenberg'; Johnson, Kirk;
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: RE: [PHP] comment followed by ?> fails to parse
> 
> 
> No the parser sees the ?> after a // because it needs to see 
> when to quit 
> out (unlike traditional, compiled languages) but it won't 
> have this same 
> effect in a string literal.....
> 
> ed

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