On Fri, May 26, 2006 at 14:06:29 -0500,
"Jim C. Nasby" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> But if aggregate(*) just gets turned into aggregate(1) by the backend,
> why not just tell people to use aggregate(1) for their custom
> aggregates? Or am I misunderstanding how aggregate(*) is actually
> handled?
>
> My concern is that it's not inconceiveable to typo max(field) into
> max(*), which could make for a rather frustrating error. Not to mention
> this being something that could trip newbies up. If nothing else I'd say
> it warrants a %TODO just so it doesn't end up on the PostgreSQL gotcha's
> page. :)
Tom's suggestion that (*) map to () which would refer to a zero argument
aggregate would cover this case, since there wouldn't be a zero argument
version of max.
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