On Fri, Jun 17, 2011 at 05:59:31AM -0700, David Fetter wrote: > On Fri, Jun 17, 2011 at 07:19:39PM +0900, Shigeru Hanada wrote:
> > > Here's an example of a non-trivial mapping. > > > > > > Database type: > > > MySQL > > > Foreign data type: > > > datetime > > > PostgreSQL data type: > > > timestamptz > > > Transformation direction: > > > Import > > > Transformation: > > > CASE > > > WHEN DATA = '0000-00-00 00:00:00' > > > THEN NULL > > > ELSE DATA > > > END > > > > > > Here, I'm making the simplifying assumption that there is a bijective > > > mapping between data types. Any word on this? Cheers, David. -- David Fetter <da...@fetter.org> http://fetter.org/ Phone: +1 415 235 3778 AIM: dfetter666 Yahoo!: dfetter Skype: davidfetter XMPP: david.fet...@gmail.com iCal: webcal://www.tripit.com/feed/ical/people/david74/tripit.ics Remember to vote! Consider donating to Postgres: http://www.postgresql.org/about/donate -- Sent via pgsql-hackers mailing list (pgsql-hackers@postgresql.org) To make changes to your subscription: http://www.postgresql.org/mailpref/pgsql-hackers
