<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message 
news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>> Gregory Stark <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
>>> I'm not sure if there's a fundamental reason why there has to be an
>>> index that
>>> exactly matches the foreign key or not -- offhand I can't think of one.
>>
>> The reason why is that the SQL spec says so:
>>
>>             a) If the <referenced table and columns> specifies a
>> <reference
>>               column list>, then the set of <column name>s contained
>>               in that <reference column list> shall be equal to the
>>               set of <column name>s contained in the <unique column
>>               list> of a unique constraint of the referenced table. Let
>>               referenced columns be the column or columns identified by
>>               that <reference column list> and let referenced column be
>> one
>>               such column. Each referenced column shall identify a column
>>               of the referenced table and the same column shall not be
>>               identified more than once.
>>
>> I'm not entirely sure, but I think the restrictive definition might be
>> necessary with some of the more complex options for foreign keys, such
>> as MATCH PARTIAL.
>
>
> I must admit, the standard is not very easy reading for me; what exactly
> does the standarad mean by "<unique column list>":
> 1. is that a requirement for mathematical properties of that list, or
> 2. is that a requirement for explicit SQL UNIQUE INDEX existing over the
> entire list.
>
<unique column list> just means the column name list specified between the 
parentheses of some UNIQUE or PRIMARY KEY constraint. There is no such thing 
as a UNIQUE INDEX in SQL.

> Since <column list> is a <unique column list> whenever a subset of <column
> list> is a <unique column list>, then if interpretation nr.1 of the
> standard is OK, there is no real requirement to install (and require to
> install) an additional unique constraint on the target <column list>.
>
>
> -R
>
>
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