On 22.08.23 10:20, Jason Long via Openvpn-users wrote:
Why can the client connect to my OpenVPN server when the IP range is not correct?
Two reasons: 1. Because the VPN connection is established *before* any additional routes will be set. 2. You're utterly confused about what is or isn't "correct" there.As Gert already told you, "(i)route" instructs the peers to route a given subnet *into* the VPN. If there is such a thing as a pronouncedly "not correct" subnet to do that with, addresses that you need to use to establish the VPN tunnel in the first place would be it - which is exactly what you're trying to do, without ever explaining *why* you would want to do that.
Kind regards, -- Jochen Bern Systemingenieur Binect GmbH
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