I have purchased OpenVPN 2 Cookbook, was only able to find information to
do this if you had access to a block of IP's. Mine our non-contiguous.
On Wed, Feb 17, 2016 at 4:52 AM, Jan Just Keijser <janj...@nikhef.nl> wrote:
> Hi Samuel,
>
> Samuel Seidel wrote:
>
>> A: Server - A server with non-contiguous IP's, which each may have
>> separate gateways, from any substandard vps hosting provider
>> Two static public IP addresses, for example: 203.0.113.101
>> 203.0.114.202
>>
>> B: Client - Pfsense and/or Openwrt, has a dynamic IP, for example:
>> 203.0.115.1
>>
>> Premise: A person wants to host a web server, and some other services,
>> through a home router (B). He wishes to benefit from having a dedicated,
>> non-changing, IP from which people can access his servers from, and he also
>> wishes to benefit from having a better backbone connection, then his
>> Comcast connection can provide, and additionally the benefit of compression.
>> How can he assign one of the IP's from Server A, to a client, like a
>> router for example, or maybe just a windows computer?
>> How can one accomplish this using openvpn?
>>
>> My Goal:
>> My goal today is to be able to setup an openvpn server and for a device
>> to then connect and then be IPv4 publicly accessible from the internet. I
>> know I could accomplish this by handing out a private address and 1:1
>> natting a public IP to it with IPTables, but the goal is to make it
>> transparent to the host, and allow for applications to bind directly to the
>> IP without throwing errors.
>> ------------------------------------------------------------------------
>>
> this is explained in detail in both my OpenVPN 2 Cookbook and the book
> "Mastering OpenVPN". It is perfectly possible to do this in both TUN and
> TAP mode.
>
> HTH,
>
> JJK
>
> Hints: "topology subnet" + use proxy arp
>
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