Hello again.

Have a perfectly working setup - so now I want to mess with it. Maybe.

Routed VPN, Linux OpenVPN server, server-side Mikrotik router is 
external to the VPN server.  Clients connect and are able to access the 
server - and the server-side network, as I have configured IP forwarding 
on the server and added a route to the VPN on the router.

So now...all of a sudden I started thinking (I was sitting down, I 
admit...).

First - please confirm my assumption.  Client connecting from whatever 
his own internal LAN/external internet IP address, but has a routed VPN 
IP assigned.  Through the magic of IP, the client reaches my server-side 
router.  The router knows to pass connections on port "X" to the VPN 
server.  The VPN server decodes the packet and decides what to do.  If 
the packet is NOT intended for the VPN server, but instead another 
server-side address, the packet gets forwarded.  When THAT device 
responds - it tries to reply to the address of the VPN client.  Since it 
doesn't know how to reach that network it looks to its default gateway - 
my router.  Normally the router wouldn't know what to do with it - but 
since I've manually told it VPN addresses belong to the VPN server it 
sends it on - and then the VPN server encodes the response and passes it 
back to the router to send it back out via the Internet.

Did I get that right?

If that's the case...then it strikes me as inefficient and inelegant to 
have the server-side network responses bouncing to the router, back to 
the VPN server, and then back out the router.  So...is there a way to 
eliminate that link in the chain?  Some iproute2 or iptables magic?  Or 
would I have to manually configure the VPN route on every server-side 
machine (which I might be able to do via my DHCP...)?  Or as usual am I 
overthinking it and just leave it alone?

--
Daniel

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