David Freedman wrote:
e.
We will need to set up a L2TPV3 tunnel to their old location (single
homed, no BGP on that side). Upon initial reading of Cisco docs to do
this, we will need a routable IP on a loopback interface for starters.
I'm pretty sure this is just a recommendation based on good practise
(routeability to endpoints), I'm sure since you are not multihomed you
can just use "ip local interface WAN1" and be done with it, I seem to
remember doing something similar in an l2tpv3 pw class and it working.
Using one from the /24 LAN is out unless we subnet it, which we don't
want to do.
So the question is, can I just "move" the PTP IP address x.x.129.174
from the WAN interface to the loopback like this?
interface Loopback0
ip address x.x.129.174 255.255.255.252 (that's the mask we're using on
the WAN- Cisco's loopback examples show .255)
interface WAN1 (actually a gigether)
ip unnumbered loopback0 (or no ip addr?)
neighbor x.x.128.173 update-source Loopback0
No, if you were to do this you should get a new transfer network, you
can't have the same address on two interfaces (and in fact, you should
really be stealing an address from your internal /24 which doesn't
require any re-subnetting (if you are happy for this address to be
unreachable) and it should have a /32 mask...
That's not correct.
From a VZ IP circuit that I have:
interface Loopback0
ip address x.x.x.x 255.255.255.255 (actual assigned mask is
255.255.255.252)
interface Serial0/0/0
bandwidth 1536
ip unnumbered Loopback0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial0/0/0
Works great for me across ~50 sites.
-Dave
