On Mon, 05 Nov 2007 15:38:20 +0100 Jean-Marc Lasgouttes <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Martin Vermeer <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > > >> But I am not sure I understand. Why is forceLTR true for ERT? Just for > >> display purpose? > > > > Hmmm. It is to force the language, and thus the encoding, to Latin1. > > LaTeX needs that; LyX display would be happy with Unicode, but isn't > > smart enough to convert it to Latin1 without some help (i.e., the > > language attribute). > > I would be surprised that LaTeX really need latin1 (why not latin2, > after all). Looks like the use of forceLTR for this effect is very > weird. Whatever... Dov tells me something like this is needed. Yes, I suppose US-ASCII would do. - Martin
