> My understanding is that EUPL's translations are in the first category
> ("mere" translation), since they can rely on cross-EU standardization of
> legal regimes. Is that correct?
>
>
On the grounds that we see only one English version, i.e., it is not
differentiating between Ireland and UK ( English/Welsh/Scotland/Northern
Ireland), I say it is "mere" translation, not porting.

Not even sure it has the same status as EU Directive, i.e. instruction to
government to implement the content of the Directive into law.

HTH
Cinly
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