Mike Milinkovich wrote: “Many lawyers don't like them. In my experience there were lots of lawyers who found the EPL-1.0 USA-centric because of its choice of law provision and avoided it as a result. E.g. why would a German automaker want to contribute code under a license that stipulates US law when they go to great lengths to shield their company from US law? Telling them that the lawsuit could still proceed in a German court did not give them much comfort.”
Pam and others, Does anyone on here believe that omitting a “choice of law” provision entirely from a software license will necessarily result in the license being sent to the licensee’s jurisdiction for court enforcement? How does that default work? Is it magic? /Larry
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