>Why does IBM have this compulsion to be different from everyone else and invent its own terminology rather than using a conventional, well-understood word such as "bijective"?
Because "bijective" is not so well understood by anyone born before 1952 or so. The term relates to SET Theory, which was a big part of the "New Math". My younger brother, born in 1953 was exposed to this, but I was not. Actually, I only learned of the term (and the noun "bijection") on this forum, this past year. But, of course we have digressed far from Charles original question. Sorry. John ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For IBM-MAIN subscribe / signoff / archive access instructions, send email to [email protected] with the message: INFO IBM-MAIN
