Good question! I can't decide as well. I want to know how people think about it.
In a lazy language, a variable is a 0-ary thunk, while a predicate is a 1-ary thunk. Since they are really just special case of a general thing, it make sense to use foo? for both cases. But we all know guile is not lazy, so I really don't know what to do. Christopher Allan Webber <cweb...@dustycloud.org> writes: > Hello everyone! Here's a little bikeshed for us to paint. > > I've noticed that it's common in Guile modules to use "foo?" for > variable names involving booleans. It's tempting, because this looks > an awful lot like you're asking a question... and it's also common > for this even to be keyword arguments to procedures, etc. > > But is it a good idea? I thought "foo?" was supposed to be for > predicates, as a nicer version of the "foo-p" predicate convention in > other non-scheme lisps. I can't imagine other lisps doing "foo-p" for > just variables with boolean values. > > On the other hand, once you start adding ? to the end of boolean'y > things, it *does* become tempting to put them at the end of boolean > variables and arguments. It looks pretty nice. > > What do people think? I'm struggling with deciding what's the right > thing for my own code, but leaning towards "we shouldn't use the ? > suffix for just boolean values". > > - Chris
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