To me it is perfectly natural that line from 1,1 then up 1 is different from line then up 1
In the first case, there is a very clear intuitive specification of a path that starts at 1,1 and then goes up 1 -- it is not ambiguous. In the second case, there is no clear specification of where the path starts. "line then up 1" has a natural interpretation of "do something (line) and *then* up 1". Hence, the current behavior for the second case makes sense but the current behavior for the first case does not make sense. ---------------------------------------- > From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] > ... > Uh, oh. It seems that I have to revert or modify the change. Anyway, > it looks strange to me that > > right; > line from 1,1 then up 1 > > (which is, according to your tests with AT&T pic, the same as `line 0 > from 1,1 then up 1') should be have in a different way compared to > > right; > line then up 1; > > (which is the same as `line right then up 1'). > > Am I doing something wrong? Opinions? > > > Werner _________________________________________________________________ Shed those extra pounds with MSN and The Biggest Loser! http://biggestloser.msn.com/