Am 15. Juni 2018 20:38:17 MESZ schrieb Steve Kargl 
<s...@troutmask.apl.washington.edu>:
>> But at least for pure functions, this optimization looks Ok.
>> 
>
>Why is everyone fixated on PURE vs IMPURE functions?

Simply because it makes a difference in this context!

That the Fortran standard does not acknowledge this fact is more than 
surprising to me, given that Fortran actually has a way to mark functions as 
pure/impure. Not all languages have that.

What's the use of a PURE keyword, if not to indicate to the compiler that 
certain optimizations can safely be done?

Cheers,
Janus

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