Hi!

I've read some explanations about the SYN flood DoS attack.
I understand that when the attacker fills the listening queue of the
attacked host with incomplete connections, the attacked host will not
reply to any SYN it receives after that.

However, I don't understand why it will not even reply with an RST
when it receives a SYN-ACK from other machine.

For example, take a look at the famous Kevin Mitnick's attack.

First, Mitnick SYN- floods "server".

14:18:22.516699 130.92.6.97.600 > server.login: S
1382726960:1382726960(0) win
4096
14:18:22.566069 130.92.6.97.601 > server.login: S
1382726961:1382726961(0) win
4096
[....and lots of other SYNs....]


Then he spoofes server's IP address and try to connect to x-terminal.
He sends a SYN from server to x-terminal. Then I think x-terminal
sends a SYN/ACK back to server, BUT server IGNORES it (if not, this
attack wouldn't have succeeded). And then Mitnick predicts the TCP
sequence number, and sends an ACK, so that he's able to ESTABLISH the
connection.

14:18:36.245045 server.login > x-terminal.shell: S
1382727010:1382727010(0) win
  4096
14:18:36.755522 server.login > x-terminal.shell: . ack 2024384001 win
4096

My question is why didn't server send an RST in response to the
SYN/ACK x-terminal sent to it?

I understand that if a host has its listening queue full, it'll ignore
the following SYNs, because it has "no resources" to keep sate
information for a new connection.
But, why doesn't it reply a SYN/ACK with a RST, if it DOES KNOW that
that segment doesn't correspond to any current connection?

Kind regards,
Fernando Gont
e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]


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