On Wed, August 14, 2024 2:17 am, Aldo Necci wrote: > On Tue, August 13, 2024 00:54, Harold Hallikainen via Fail2ban-users > wrote: >> When I use fail2ban-client to ban a specific IP, I usually see a 0 or 1 >> response. I have not been able to find the meaning of this in the >> documentation. What do these responses mean? >> >> THANKS! >> >> Harold >> >> > > Hi, > > if you receive a "1" output, the IP is regulairly banned because > it was not banned before, it was not present in the fail2ban's database. > > if you receive a "0" output the IP was previously banned and no action is > required. > > bye, > Aldo Necci THANKS! I could not find that in any of the documentation (but I may have missed it). My server is getting swamped causing a whole lot of php-fpm to run. I am now running a script every minute that restarts php-fpm if the server load is over 50%. A major source of the load appears to be ByteDance, so another daily script blocks all IP addresses with the ByteDance bot. Next in line appears to be Amazon Web Services. I'm working on blocking them. Harold -- Not sent from an iPhone. _______________________________________________ Fail2ban-users mailing list Fail2ban-users@lists.sourceforge.net https://lists.sourceforge.net/lists/listinfo/fail2ban-users
Re: [Fail2ban-users] fail2ban-client output?
Harold Hallikainen via Fail2ban-users Wed, 14 Aug 2024 11:31:59 -0700
- [Fail2ban-users] fail2ban-client out... Harold Hallikainen via Fail2ban-users
- Re: [Fail2ban-users] fail2ban-c... Tim Boneko via Fail2ban-users
- Re: [Fail2ban-users] fail2ban-c... Harold Hallikainen via Fail2ban-users
- Re: [Fail2ban-users] fail2b... L. V. Lammert