On Wednesday, January 29, 2025 at 9:23:31 AM UTC-7 Jesse Mazer wrote:

On Wed, Jan 29, 2025 at 3:30 AM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:

On Wednesday, January 29, 2025 at 12:24:33 AM UTC-7 Jesse Mazer wrote:

On Wed, Jan 29, 2025 at 1:24 AM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:

On Tuesday, January 28, 2025 at 9:01:14 PM UTC-7 Jesse Mazer wrote:

On Tue, Jan 28, 2025 at 8:54 PM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:

On Tuesday, January 28, 2025 at 2:56:32 PM UTC-7 Brent Meeker wrote:

On 1/28/2025 6:49 AM, Alan Grayson wrote:

I figured you'd jump on my word "separation". You have no idea what I mean? 
Of course, events with different coordinates are separated in a physical 
sense. Otherwise they'd have the SAME coordinates! But separated wrt 
spacetime events means no causal connections; whereas timelike events DO 
have causal connections. Of course, you know this, so please stop splitting 
hairs to make an argument. As for relative velocity, if you don't know what 
I mean, then you don't know what the v means in the gamma function. Again, 
stop splitting hairs. Oh, about GPS, I will look up this issue, but I was 
informed of it from a Ph'D in physics from Brent's Ph'D alma mater, 
University of Texas at Austin. It's surely NOT a distraction if it 
establishes that results in SR are physically real, not just appearances. AG


There's an unfortunate but common confusion.  The un-intuitive aspects of 
special relativity are physically real, but not it the sense that they happen 
to the moving object.  If SR predicts length contraction, is the object is 
really shorter?  (1) It's really shorter in the reference frame where it's 
moving.  (2) It's not shorter in it's own frame.  And (3) it's a different 
degree of shorter in other reference frames where it is moving with 
different velocities.  Just looking at (2) people assume that it means (1) 
and (3) are just appearances.  What's true is that 

*the contraction, relative to things in some reference frame, with respect 
to which it's moving, is real. *Brent


*It's a baffling result. The LT doesn't tell us what will be MEASURED in a 
moving target frame being observed from a rest frame wrt length contraction 
and time dilation, so the result is just an APPEARANCE from the pov of the 
rest frame; and yet, from the pov of GPS clocks, these effects are real and 
measureable. This was the conclusion I argued, which is why I referenced 
the GPS clocks. *


Brent's comment wasn't saying there was any disagreement between what 
coordinates the LT predicts for a given frame and what is really true (or 
really measured) in that frame, just like I wasn't saying that (see my last 
response above). You're really deluding yourself by rushing to read every 
explanation people give you as confirmation of your pre-existing fixed 
opinions.

Jesse


IMO you're deluding yourself in one important respect; your insistence that 
the results of the LT from the pov of some rest frame predicting length 
contraction in a frame moving wrt to it, can be measured in that moving 
frame;


This statement is hard to follow because you ignore the distinction I made 
between frames and objects--


*I can't help you if you refuse to use your imagination. A rod or any 
object moving wrt a fixed source frame using the LT, or an object in moving 
frame at rest in that frame when the LT is applied from a fixed source 
frame, will be predicted as contracted. Period. AG*


Your idiosyncratic way of talking is very hard to follow, I don't really 
understand the phrase "an object in moving frame at rest in that frame when 
the LT is applied from a fixed source frame". Can you please just use my 
terminology of v_rs representing the velocity of the rod in the source 
frame's coordinates, and v_rt representing the velocity of the rod in the 
target frame's coordinates? What I'm asking about is a scenario where v_rs 
is nonzero in the source frame's coordinates, then we use the LT to predict 
the coordinates of the worldlines of the front and back of the rod as 
defined in the target frame, and get the result that in the target frame 
the rod has v_rt = 0 so it's at rest in the target frame (i.e. both front 
and back have position coordinates which don't change with time in the 
target frame). If we then calculate the predicted length of the rod as 
defined in the target frame (where 'length' just means subtracting the 
position coordinate of the back of the rod from the position coordinate of 
the front), are you saying it will be predicted to be CONTRACTED compared 
to the length as defined by the original coordinates of the source frame?
 

 

if we have some object whose length we want to talk about, and we know the 
coordinates of the worldlines of the front and back of the object in the 
first (source) frame and then use the LT to predict its coordinates (giving 
us its length) in the second (target) frame, you can't make any general 
statement about whether the LT will be "predicting length contraction" of 
the object until you know the velocity of the object itself in each frame. 
If the object has a higher velocity v_rt in the target frame than its 
velocity v_rs in the source frame, the LT will predict the object will be 
contracted in the target frame; on the other hand, if the object has a 
lower velocity v_rt in the target frame (including the case I analyzed 
where v_rt = 0) than its velocity v_rs in the source frame, the LT will 
predict the object is EXPANDED in the target frame, not contracted, 
compared to its length in the source frame. In the past you disagreed with 
this, do you still disagree or have you changed your mind? 

Please give a clear answer on this, telling me whether you now AGREE or 
DISAGREE that when the rod has v_rt in the target frame lower than its v_rs 
in the source frame, the LT predicts the rod's length in the target frame 
is expanded, not contracted. And if you disagree, please address the 
questions I asked in my last reply to you (the one before my reply to your 
comment on Brent's post).


*The target frame is moving wrt the source frame. Objects in the target 
frame are at rest within that frame,*


More verbal confusion here, 


*If you claim you don't understand my statement, you're either lying or I 
can't help you to understand what I consideer to be a simpe statement. A*G
 

when I said "its length in the source frame" I just meant the coordinate 
length assigned by the source frame, whereas your last comment "Objects in 
the target frame are at rest within that frame" seems to say you are using 
"within that frame" to specifically mean a velocity of zero using the 
frame's coordinates. If you don't like my wording, just tell me what 
wording YOU would prefer for talking about the coordinates assigned to an 
arbitrary object by a given frame, regardless of whether it has a velocity 
of zero relative to that frame or not. For example if the source frame uses 
unprimed coordinates x and t, and the position as a function of time for 
the back of the rod as defined in the source frame is x = 0.8c*t while the 
position as a function of time for the front of the rod is x = 7.2 + 
0.8c*t, then at any given value of t in the source frame the coordinate 
distance between the x-coordinate of the front and the x-coordinate of the 
back will be 7.2, so that is what I meant by "its length in the source 
frame" even though the rod is not "at rest within that frame" according to 
your terminology. (I would also say in this case the rod's velocity in the 
source frame is 0.8c) Is it OK with you if I continue to say things like 
"its length in the source frame" or "its velocity in the source frame" to 
refer to coordinate judgments like this, and if not what wording would you 
prefer?

 

* and contracted according to relativity. One can also consider a moving 
rod as the frame AND the object under consideration.  This is how to model 
and analyze a shortened trip to Andromeda. If you have a better way to 
model it, I am all ears. AG*


You didn't answer my straightforward question: "Please give a clear answer 
on this, telling me whether you now AGREE or DISAGREE that when the rod has 
v_rt in the target frame lower than its v_rs in the source frame, the LT 
predicts the rod's length in the target frame is expanded, not contracted". 
Keep in mind that a lower v_rt in the target frame could include the case 
we were discussing where the rod is at rest as measured in the coordinates 
of the target frame (v_rt = 0)--do you AGREE or DISAGREE that in this case 
the LT predicts the rod's length in the target frame is expanded, not 
contracted?

In your followup reply you said "The source frame is always fixed if the LT 
is applied, so offhand I can't say I agree or disagree in this case. If the 
rod is moving, it is contracted from the pov of the source frame. If you 
want the source frame to be moving, then the only way to apply the LT is to 
consider relative motion, with one frame at rest. Offhand I can't say I 
agree or disagree, except to say that from the pov of whatever frame is 
fixed, to new target is contracted. AG"

Here your confusing terminology, where you sometime use "moving" and "at 
rest" in a standard way (relative to a specified frame) and sometimes in a 
non-standard way (where you arbitrarily designate one frame as "at rest" 
and the other as "moving" thoughout the whole problem), again makes it hard 
for me to follow what point you are trying to make here. What does it even 
mean to say "if you want the source frame to be moving"? I thought in 
Alan-speak the designation of one frame as "moving" and the other as "at 
rest" in your terminology was supposed to be an arbitrary linguistic label, 
one which therefore should have no effect on the answer to any physical 
question like whether the rod is contracted in the coordinates of either 
frame?

Again, the standard terminology is just to use explicitly relative phrases 
like "the rod is moving relative to the Earth" or "the rod is moving in the 
Earth's frame", both of which just mean that the position coordinates 
assigned to the rod by the Earth frame are different at different values of 
the time coordinate (as in the example above where the back of the rod has 
coordinates x=0.8c*t, so for example at t=10 it would have x=8, then at 
t=20 it would have x=16 etc). Likewise saying "the rod is at rest in the 
rod frame" just means the position coordinates of the front and back of the 
rod are unchanging in the rod frame, they don't change at different values 
of the time coordinate. Modern physicists don't use non-relative phrasing 
like "frame A is moving", and it's not just a terminological matter because 
in cases like the above where you talk this way I genuinely can't parse how 
your statement would translate into a statement about the coordinates 
assigned by different frames, which is all that the LT is ultimately 
dealing with. Likewise "length" in each frame is ultimately just a 
coordinate matter, defined purely in terms of the coordinate distance 
between the ends of the object at any single value of coordinate time. 

If you think SR involves any concept of "velocity", "rest", "length" in a 
given frame that is *not* just a shorthand for talking about coordinates 
assigned to objects by that frame (with all coordinates based on local 
measurements by a system of rulers and clocks at rest in that frame), then 
you are confused. If you agree it's all ultimately about coordinates, you 
need to find a way of talking that doesn't lead to so much confusion about 
how your statements could be translated into coordinate terms, like my 
request to speak in terms of v_rs and v_rt.

 

 

So we're both correct from different points of view, but you were mistaken 
to ignore my comments about GPS. Also, to be candid, I don't appreciate 
your comment that I am rushing to accept an opinion that confirms my 
pre-existing fixed opinions. You like to focus on coordinates, but the fact 
is you were mistaken in claiming the LT makes a measurable prediction of 
what a source frame predicts. It does in the GPS case, but not in the case 
of what a target frame predicts internally. AG 


You never addressed my response to you about the GPS in my post at 
https://groups.google.com/g/everything-list/c/ykkIYDAL3mTg/m/ximYgKzKDAAJ 
<https://groups.google.com/g/everything-list/c/ykkIYDL3mTg/m/ximYgKzKDAAJ> 
-- any coordinate system covering a non-infinitesimal region of curved 
spacetime is non-inertial, and the LT isn't relevant to non-inertial 
coordinate systems. 


*An object in free fall is in inertial motion, called a geodesic in GR. The 
LT is probably applicable for infinitesmal motion notwithstanding that this 
is occurring in curved spacetime. But I'm NOT an expert on how or why SR is 
used in GPS to make clock corrections. What I do know is that it IS used, 
that consequently the LT is likely applied in some way, and I gave this 
example just to show that whereas the LT does NOT give predictions 
concerning what is predicted for objects moving wrt a fixed frame, one 
cannot categorically claim that it never does.*


If we're talking about a scenario where a GPS type system was used in flat 
spacetime, the LT would certainly "give predictions concerning what is 
predicted for objects moving wrt a fixed frame", as I said in the last 
sentence below you'd just have to include the way the clocks are 
artificially slowed down (relative to standard clocks) in the source frame 
before doing things like calculating elapsed time on a clock for some 
interval of coordinate time in the source frame, or applying the LT to 
predict the clocks' behavior in the target frame.

Jesse

 

 

But looking into this a little more, it seems based on p. 2-3 of 
http://math.bme.hu/~matolcsi/gpsmegjelentejp.pdf that at some point in the 
GPS calculations they do use an approximation that treats the spacetime 
around the Earth as flat so an inertial coordinate system can be used, and 
then they add higher-order corrections to account for the fact that the 
spacetime is actually curved and this is relevant to gravitational time 
dilation. 

But even if there were no gravity and we were just trying to define a 
GPS-like system to adjust clocks with various states of motion so they were 
all synchronized in a single inertial frame (as in the 'Suppose for a 
moment there were no gravitational fields' comment in the second to last 
paragraph in 'the realization of coordinate time' section of the GPS paper 
at https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC5253894/#Sec4 ), say the frame 
where the center of the Earth is at rest, I still don't understand why you 
think this would indicate any conflict between what the LT predicts and 
what is measured--the whole point of a GPS system is that the ticking rate 
of the clocks is being artificially adjusted so it no longer matches the 
"proper time" of an un-adjusted clock following the same trajectory, but 
instead matches the coordinate time in some preferred coordinate system 
you've programmed the clocks to keep pace with. If you have a system of 
adjustments like this for clocks in flat spacetime where inertial frames 
can be used, then if you know the adjusted ticking rate of a clock in some 
source frame (along with the coordinates of its worldline in this frame), 
you can use the LT to correctly predict the adjusted ticking rate of that 
same clock in a different target frame.

Jesse

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