On Wed, Aug 27, 2025 at 10:34 AM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:
*> You're assuming the waves pre-exist the "measurement", * *No I'm not but that debate is unrelated to the current question. Regardless of if it's pre or post measurement, how can a pure point particle have a polarization, and how can a series of microscopic molecular parallel lines give it one? * *> but they don't. AG* *Actually I agree, before measurement the photon did not have one and only one polarization, but I'm surprised to hear you say that because I thought you believed Many Worlds was nonsense. * * John K Clark See what's on my new list at Extropolis <https://groups.google.com/g/extropolis>* &!? -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To view this discussion visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/everything-list/CAJPayv1epKZ-P0w2ESxRNpzjs6pq%2BdTHgN1tmX0H77JJdxH6OA%40mail.gmail.com.
