On 18 Sep 2015, at 13:14, Stephen Farrell wrote:
Hiya,
On 18/09/15 19:55, Paul Hoffman wrote:
On 15 Sep 2015, at 9:46, Stephen Farrell wrote:
Is a domain a sub-domain of itself?
No. The quoted definition from RFC 1034 starts off "A domain is a
subdomain of another domain..." There is no language in RFCs 1034 or
1035 that indicate that a domain can be a subdomain of itself.
In 1034, 3.1? I don't think that answers this question tbh. That
says:
"A domain is a subdomain of another domain if it is contained
within that domain."
That'd answer the question if it said iff but it says if.
I'm not sure what you're asking for here. RFC 1034 is the definition of
"subdomain" that we have today (well, for the past few decades). Are you
just pointing out that it did not consider the case of a domain being a
subdomain of itself? Or are you wanting us to update RFC 1034 and pick a
yes/no on the issue? Or...?
Do we care?
We would if it could be, since there could be ramifications.
IIRC your document doesn't say either.
Correct.
Now I guess that might be the correct stance, but maybe it's one
to [onder on the dnsop list at some other appropriate time. OTOH,
since the DNS has survived and prospered regardless, it may be
fine to just not bother.
That seems to be a reasonable course of action for now.
--Paul Hoffman
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