On Tue, Jul 29, 2008 at 8:42 AM, isaacgerg <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> If this is true, why is it that the residual carrier is reported as zero?
> Are you suggesting that this value is not correct?

I think all Matt is saying is that the two receivers are working off
of different local oscillators which cause a frequency offset causing
your correlation phasor to spin around.

Chances are if you plot phase of the correlation over time along with
the magnitude over time, you will see the magnitude doesn't get
smaller and the phase should smoothly rotate around at the rate which
your frequencies are off.

Does that make sense?

Brian


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