On Sat, Jul 28, 2001 at 11:33:42AM +0200, Denis Barbier wrote: > > AFAICT the Catalan translator do it the right way, he only defines a language > code. I was wondering if this could cause some trouble to our scripts > to have unrelated language and country codes with the same letters. > I know the code has changed substantially since I first wrote it, but the routines for handling countries and languages were completely separate, so I don't imagine there is much room for conflict.
-- James (Jay) Treacy [EMAIL PROTECTED]
