On Fri, 30 Mar 2007 17:30:42 -0400 Curt Howland <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> -----BEGIN PGP SIGNED MESSAGE----- > Hash: SHA1 > > On Friday 30 March 2007 14:05, Celejar <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> was heard > to say: > > The bottom line is that if the cost is the same or lower (the > > assumption of the OP, because less processing is done), then given > > perfect competition, the price should be, too. > > Except that "perfect competition" does not exist. It is one of the > primary flaws of Keynesian economics. Thanks for the references, but I don't have time to peruse them carefully at the moment; they are long and dense. If you can summarize for me why you believe that your (their) understanding of competition as it exists in the real world invalidates my argument, we can continue this discussion. > Platonic Competition, By George Reisman > http://www.mises.org/story/1988 > > "The macroeconomic result was called perfect competition..." > http://www.mises.org/journals/qjae/pdf/qjae7_4_1.pdf > > The Misesian Case against Keynes > http://www.mises.org/story/2492 This one mentions the word 'competition' for the first time almost at the end, in footnote 20. Celejar -- To UNSUBSCRIBE, email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] with a subject of "unsubscribe". Trouble? Contact [EMAIL PROTECTED]
