On Fri, July 8, 2005 8:45 pm, Cybe R. Wizard said: >> > Yes, that makes perfect sense and reiterates what I have said; that if a > thing has dropped in price 2000-fold /someone/ should now be paying me > to use their hardware. Isn't it similar to the problem in saying that > something costs, say, three times less than <time ago>? Isn't > /one/ time less than what was paid equal to zero? Wouldn't we be more > correct in saying one third the price? > > Cybe R. Wizard -wants to understand, not just pedantic
Following these statements and math, one is always dividing, not subtracting. No matter how many times you divide you are still left with parts. If you then call each of the new parts a whole and divide it you never end up with 0 or less then 0. Unless you divide by 0, but of course that is an imaginary number (i). -- To UNSUBSCRIBE, email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] with a subject of "unsubscribe". Trouble? Contact [EMAIL PROTECTED]
