"Jamie Jones" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in message
news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Based on my understanding of Japanese law, the original document being
in Japanese is the one that is legally binding, even if the author makes
an English translation. Other jurisdictions may accept a hypothetical
English translation, but in the event of a dispute, the correct terms
are in the Japanese version.
I assume that the author could in theory make the English document
caniconical,
and the Japanese version non-binding. Would this be corretct?
IANAL, TINLA.
Regards,
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