"Ken Arromdee" <arrom...@rahul.net> wrote in message
news:20090322071908.98b07b...@violet.rahul.net...
First sale in the US only applies if the product was made in the US.
Where on Earth did you hear or read that? I've never head such a thing.
http://supreme.justia.com/us/523/135/case.html
Read carefully the sections describing 602(a), particularly page 148.
# copies that are not subject to the first sale doctrine-e. g., copies
# that are lawfully made under the law of another country
Hmm, interesting...
Without scutinizing the code, and reading the entire order I cannot see what
exactly is being implied there.
Some of the text appears at a quick glance to imply that giving away a
legally owned copy is always allowed unless barred by contractual
restircitions, regardless of origin, and it is the right of sale may be
lacking in some imported works.
But I only read bits very quickly so I may be completely wrong.
IANAL, IANADD.
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