On Saturday 23 July 2005 02:40 am, Arnoud Engelfriet wrote: > [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: > > I have a few questions about software developement. One of them is > > whether a program written in e.g. Fortran by me or somebody else (who > > owns the copyright) is converted to C (not f2c). How is copyright changed > > and what about patent issues (maybe not relevant). > > If the transformation from Fortran to C involves creative activity, > then the person who did the transformation may hold a copyright in > the C-version. Compare a translation from French to English of a > book. If it's just a literal translation, then the translator has > no copyright.
To be clear, if someone translates something from Language A to Language B, they do not hold a copyright in the Language B version. What they hold is a copyright in the expression that is the translation. This is important because the translator cannot authorize the translation from Language B to Language C, as he does not control the copyright to the underlying work on which any translation effort is based. This, of course, is the default rule and can be circumvented with good licensing allowing the translator to have full control over their derivative... but outside of a copyleft context, I can't imagine an author wanting a translator to have the authority to translate back into the initial language and sell competing versions. -Sean -- Sean Kellogg 3rd Year - University of Washington School of Law Graduate & Professional Student Senate Treasurer UW Service & Activities Committee Interim Chair w: http://probonogeek.blogspot.com So, let go ...Jump in ...Oh well, what you waiting for? ...it's all right ...'Cause there's beauty in the breakdown