Florian Weimer <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > > You cannot infer person A's intent in doing something merely by > > assuming that it must be the same as persons B, C, and D. > > Well, of course you can. A lot of contracts are made this way (for > example, if you buy something in a shop).
Actually, no. First, buying something in a shop doesn't necessarily involve any contract at all; it's a sale, which can proceed other than by contract. Second, the Uniform Commercial Code explicitly says things about following customary practices, and does say that commercial contracts are presumed to be following normal customary practices, so that such imputation of intent works there. But no, the UCC does not apply to copyright licensing. And finally, it might be evidence for A's intent that they were probably wanting what B, C, and D, wanted. I said that you can't get there *merely* from that assumption, but there must be some additional something to help it along. Otherwise, the inference doesn't go. Moreover, companies are allowed to have deceptive copyright statements; in fact, they do it all the time. Nearly every book or CD you get has a deceptive copyright statement on it. Thomas
