Yes, actually both schemes converge to the same solution. 
Maybe I should do some postprocessing with a visualiuation in order to 
figure out what the lumped integration does with the values at the qps.

I´ve got one more basic question ragarding the determination of the 
convergence rate as it is done in many tutorials (step 7, step 51,...). For 
that purpose I watched your new videos (3.9, 3.91, 3.93, 3.95) where you 
derived the error estimation for the laplace equation in certain norms. You 
mentioned in there that for many PDEs one comes up with the same results, 
i.e. that the finite element error is at least as good as the interpolation 
error *times some equation-dependent constant*. 
I want to determine the convergence rate for the elasticity equations with 
the PDE: div(stress-tensor) = 0. 
-Since I determine the convergence rate, the before mentioned *constant* in 
the inequality cancels out, i.e. I should get the same convergence rate as 
for the laplace equation. Is that right?

-I actually solve the nonlinear elasticity equations (hyperelasticity); The 
finite element spaces, test functions,... are the same as for linear 
elasticity, but the stresses depend now nonlinear on the gradient of the 
displacements. My question is if the nonlinearity changes the error 
estimates?
Let´s assume I determine the convergence rate in the L2-norm for linear 
elasticity, which is in the best case 2 for for p=1. Should I also get 2 
for the nonlinear elasticity equations?

I know that these questions are not directly related to dealii, but I guess 
you have a deep knowledge in that area. I would appreciate if you helped my 
answering that.

Best
Simon

Wolfgang Bangerth schrieb am Sonntag, 6. Juni 2021 um 01:58:39 UTC+2:

> On 6/4/21 9:14 AM, Simon Wiesheier wrote:
> > 
> > So intuitively speaking, what is the effect of the lumped integration? 
> From a 
> > mathematical viewpoint there are no more couplings between the DoFs. But 
> does 
> > this lead to lower nodal values, higher nodal values or is this context 
> dependent?
>
> I have to admit that I have no intuition.
>
> Do both schemes converge? To the same solution?
>
> Best
> W.
>
>
> -- 
> ------------------------------------------------------------------------
> Wolfgang Bangerth email: bang...@colostate.edu
> www: http://www.math.colostate.edu/~bangerth/
>
>

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