Sorry for digging this up, just got bit hard by this behaviour and I'm wondering what the rationale was for not defining `identical?` as `keyword-identical?` currently is, and instead adding an additional `fast-identical?`.
This way Clojure/ClojureScript code using `identical?` remains portable without breaking, and `fast-identical?` could be used internally and by folks familiar with the platform-specific ramifications. Or am I missing a subtlety here? Thanks a lot, cheers! :-) -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Clojure" group. To post to this group, send email to clojure@googlegroups.com Note that posts from new members are moderated - please be patient with your first post. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to clojure+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/clojure?hl=en --- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Clojure" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to clojure+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout.
