Clemens, I know we've had this discussion several times before, but I'd
like to take you up on the point you made that reducing Rfree-R is
necessarily always a 'good thing'.  Suppose the refinement had started
from a point where Rfree was biased, e.g. the test set in use had
previously been part of the working set, so that Rfree-R was too small.
In that case one would hope and indeed expect that Rfree-R would
increase on further refinement now excluding the test set.  Shouldn't
the criterion be that Rfree-R should attain its expected value
(dependent of course on the observation/parameter ratio and the
weighting parameters), so a high value of |(Rfree-R) - <Rfree-R>| is
bad, i.e. any significant deviations of (Rfree-R) from its expectation
are bad?

I would go further than that and say that anyway Rfree is meaningless
unless the refinement has converged, i.e. reached its maximum (local or
global) total likelihood (i.e. data+restraints).  So one simply cannot
compare the Rfree (or Rfree-R) values at the beginning and end of a run.
The purpose of Rfree (or better free likelihood) is surely to compare
the *results* of *different* runs where convergence has been attained
and where the *refinement protocol* (i.e. selection of parameters to
vary and weighting parameters) has been varied, and then to choose as
the optimal protocol (and therefore optimal result) the one that gave
the lowest Rfree (or highest free likelihood).

Rfree-R is then used as a subsidiary test to verify that it has attained
its expected value, if not then something is wrong, i.e. either the
refinement didn't converge (Rfree-R lower than <Rfree-R>) or there are
non-random errors (Rfree-R higher than <Rfree-R>), or a combination of
factors.

Cheers

-- Ian

> -----Original Message-----
> From: owner-ccp...@jiscmail.ac.uk [mailto:owner-ccp...@jiscmail.ac.uk]
On
> Behalf Of Clemens Vonrhein
> Sent: 13 February 2009 17:15
> To: CCP4BB@JISCMAIL.AC.UK
> Subject: Re: [ccp4bb] unstable refinement
> 
> * you don't mention if the R and Rfree move up identically - or if you
>   have a faster increase in R than in Rfree, which would mean that
>   your R-factors are increasing (bad I guess) but your Rfree-R gap is
>   closing down (good).
> 
>   So moving from R/Rfree=0.20/0.35 to R/Rfree=0.32/37 is different
>   than moving from R/Rfree=0.20/0.25 to R/Rfree=0.23/0.28.


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