Hello Chuck,

As usual the answer is "it depends". If you were only going to deal with a
known set of vendor equipment such as Cisco and Juniper then you are ok to
do either. In production I have run into issues with certain vendors such
as HP Procurve and IBM/BNT switches that only allowed you to assign defined
VLANs to instances.

Eg BNT switches only supported 2000 vlans on a switch and only those vlans
could be assigned to instances you would end up with MST inconsistencies
leading to them  wing treated as a separate region. The only work around I
found was that BNT would still assign undefined vlans to MST0.

Also remember motto neglect MST0 priorities as it is still utilized for
inter-region calculations and for backwards compatibility.

Hope this helps,

Kurt / @networkjanitor

On Wednesday, October 17, 2012, chuck mcfadden wrote:

> I have set up a lab to test migratation from PVST to MST.  The lab will use
> VLAN 1-1005; private VLANs are not used.  For the first test phase, all
> active VLANs will be placed in Instance 1 (no load balancing).
>
> I have read some conflicting information on best practice for configuring
> MST and I'm hoping someone can offer their opinion:
>
> One method says to configure "as few VLANs as possible" in Instance 0 and
> as many as requird in the remaining Instances.  For Example:
>
> spanning-tree mode mst
> spanning-tree configuration
>  name Cisco
>  version 10
>  instance 1 vlan 1-4094
> spanning-tree mst 0-1 priority 24576
> (MST0 - no vlan; MST1 - vlan 1-4094)
>
>
> The other method says to put only the used VLANs in Instance 1-64, leaving
> the non-used VLANs in Instance 0.  For Example:
>
> spanning-tree mode mst
> spanning-tree configuration
>  name Cisco
>  version 10
>  instance 1 vlan 1-1005
> spanning-tree mst 0-1 priority 24576
> (MST0 - 1006-4094; MST1 - vlan 1-1005)
>
>
> Which configuration would be "more correct"?  Does anyone have a good link
> where I can get more information?
>
> Thanks,
> Chuck
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