--- In [EMAIL PROTECTED], "Dan Minette" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
> 
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: "iaamoac" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> To: "Killer Bs Discussion" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> Sent: Friday, March 12, 2004 8:57 AM
> Subject: Re: Race to the Bottom
> 
> 
> > --- In [EMAIL PROTECTED], Gautam Mukunda <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> > > Hell no.  We were talking about that issue in my
> > > seminar on American identity years ago.  Easterbrook
> > > is way behind the curve on this issue.  I think I
> > > first read the argument 5-6 years ago, and I know Paul
> > > Samuelson had articles about it in the mainstream
> > > press at least 2-3 years ago.
> >
> > Raises hand!
> >
> > I know that as long as I've been on Brin-L, in previous 
discussions
> > of inequality I have suggested that surely the enormously large 
wave
> > of immigration being experienced by the United States is having 
some
> > effect on heighting inequality statistics.
> 
> If it does, shouldn't it be measurable?  For example, I'd argue that
> comparing the difference between white non-Hispanic and white 
(including
> Hispanics) rise in median income to the difference between the 
white median
> income and the median income of the top 5% of white households 
could give
> us a handle on how important the increase in immigration is.  
Further, I'd
> argue that the number of poor uneducated, white, non-Hispanic 
immigrants is
> actually lower now than it was in the '50s and '60s.
> 
> Is this a reasonable measurement to indicate trends?  If not, why 
not?

No, it isn't it assumes that non imigrants are not white, and those 
born citizens are.

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