> > I haven't, but I cannot begin to fathom how that could possibly work. >
https://www.ietf.org/archive/id/draft-chroboczek-int-v4-via-v6-01.html > How can the receiving router possibly resolve an IPv4 next-hop address > to an destination Ethernet MAC address, if the interface facing the IX > does not have any IPv4 addresses assigned? > A router only needs to know the l2 address to forward a frame. So there would be no ipv4 address on the transitory network just an ipv6 that resolves to a Mac address. Kind of like ipv4 unnumbered but with ipv6 addresses on the segment. Multiprotocol bgp would be used for the next hops. > >
