On 8/10/13 3:37 AM, Matus UHLAR - fantomas wrote:
On 09.08.13 17:44, Eduardo Bonsi wrote:
I would like to know why we are treat like a dog on a leash when the
question is to reverse our DNS ip address to a FQDN of our choices
since our account is already assigned to us by our ISP?
i don't understand your question.
Sorry Matus, I thought it was clear!
000.000.000.000.in-addr.arpa. 7200 IN PTR yourdomain.com.
yourdomain.com. IN A 000.000.000.000
however, reverse DNS records must not be zero-filled (those won't be taken
into account)
I put zeros just as an example.
it can be 111.111.111.111 where 1= (any ipv4 number) or
000.000.000.000. where 0 is (any ipv4 number).
Is there a way to get around that without have to ask our ISP to
reverse it? Can we use CNAMES for that?
I'm afraid but it's your ISP who must set up reverse records or delegate
them to you. Unless you have IP range allocated from regional internet
registry.
Yes, I know that and this is my problem!
Why should we be subjected to the ISP for reverse when we already have a
static ip and are paying for the internet account, that by the way it is
not cheap or catered to small business?
Can we just CNAME whatever reverse they have there like;
000.000.000.000.someISP.net. IN CNAME mydomain.com.
Is that cause a technical issue according to BIND?
I thought I read somewhere you cannot CNAME under certain rules.
Is this one of them?
One of the major problem here is that ISPs are not happy to make all
that money in their subscribers, they also want to exploit that part
and charge you for it.
... and please, do not tell me that is to keep the spammers out
because that so far has not proven to be true. The bad guys have an
unlimited number of domains to do their dirt work everyday.
--
Eduardo Bonsi
System - Network Admin
beart...@pacbell.net
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