On Wed, Nov 9, 2011 at 8:05 PM, Hansen Candrawinata <hansen.candrawin...@gmail.com> wrote: > This is not strictly a BIND related question, but thought someone here > probably knew the answer. > > Is it valid to use IPv6/IPv4 tunnels to send DNS queries to a DNS server. > > Does anyone know what the standards (RFCs) say about this?
They don't as the use of tunnels has nothing to do with DNS. Tunnels are simply the encapsulation of one protocol in another. The encapsulation is done at the tunnel entrance and removed on exit. Nothing outside of those two points knows or cares that there is a tunnel involved. I am assuming you are really talking about tunneling IPv6 packets in IPv4 to get between IPv6 networks which lack direct connections But, bu definition, a tunnel should be entirely transparent to things on either side of the tunnel including DNS. Of course, that means that the server on the other side of the tunnel must talk IPv6. -- R. Kevin Oberman, Network Engineer E-mail: kob6...@gmail.com _______________________________________________ Please visit https://lists.isc.org/mailman/listinfo/bind-users to unsubscribe from this list bind-users mailing list bind-users@lists.isc.org https://lists.isc.org/mailman/listinfo/bind-users
