Thanks, but that was the scenario I'm hoping to avoid. It involves way too
many manual entries (for my case), or a bunch of scripting or plugins that
will become obsolete once average cost booking is implemented.
I guess I could use FIFO instead. My Income:Capital-Gains numbers may be
off, but that shouldn't matter much.
Do others have this issue at all?
Thanks!
On Tuesday, November 26, 2019 at 10:14:34 AM UTC-8, Martin Michlmayr wrote:
>
> * Red S <redst...@gmail.com <javascript:>> [2019-11-25 02:18]:
> > 2016-01-07 * "sell"
> > Assets:Inv -10 XYZ @ 8 USD
> > Assets:Bank 80 USD
> > Income:CapGains
>
> do it manually:
>
> 2016-01-07 * "sell"
> Assets:Inv -3 XYZ { 9 USD} @ 8 USD
> Assets:Inv -3 XYZ {10 USD} @ 8 USD
> Assets:Inv -4 XYZ {11 USD} @ 8 USD
> Assets:Bank 80 USD
> Income:CapGains
>
> or calculate average cost first manually:
>
> 2016-01-07 * "Calculate average cost"
> Assets:Inv 10 XYZ {10.1 USD}
> Assets:Inv -3 XYZ { 9 USD}
> Assets:Inv -3 XYZ {10 USD}
> Assets:Inv -4 XYZ {11 USD}
>
> 2016-01-07 * "sell"
> Assets:Inv -10 XYZ {10.1 USD} @ 8 USD
> Assets:Bank 80 USD
> Income:CapGains
>
>
>
> > So I really have zero units of XYZ. However, because of the way these
> are
> > booked, bean-price includes XYZ in its output. Given I have several such
> > cases, what is the best way to handle this? I can think of these:
> > - wait until average cost booking is available (will it solve this
> problem?)
> > - book the purchases above as prices instead of commodities held at cost
> > (will I lose the average cost of the commodity? How will I know the cost
> > basis to book profit and loss?)
> > - hack a way to get a list of commodities whose lots aggregate to zero,
> and
> > remove those from what bean-price lists?
> > - something else?
> >
> > Thank you.
> >
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>
>
>
>
> --
> Martin Michlmayr
> https://www.cyrius.com/
>
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