On Tue, 30 Sep 2008, Ian Kelly wrote: > On Tue, Sep 30, 2008 at 5:26 PM, Kerim Aydin <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >> i. Every person has the right, though not necessarily the >> ability, to perform actions that are not prohibited or >> regulated by the Rules, with the sole exception of >> changing the Rules, which is permitted only when the >> Rules explicitly or implicitly permit it. > > Why do we still need paragraph 2 if we have this?
Paragraph 2 of what? Anyway, if this answers yours (and the earlier question) I just went back to the original ancient wording of this clause out of, I dunno, nostalgia? I think it works even if it's a little redundant with something elsewhere. -Goethe
