On 2020-02-03 13:38:PM, Matt Mahoney wrote:
Why does Occam's Razor exist? Because you can't have a uniform distribution over an infinite set. All possible distributions favor short strings over long, or small integers over large. For any string, you have an infinite set of longer and less likely strings and a finite set of the other 3 possibilities.
I don't think that can be the reason. There's no evidence that anything infinite exists.
What we can see is finite in space and time. A claim that invokes infinity is surely
on shaky ground, because of assuming something infinite without evidence. Occam's
razor also likely applies in toy finite worlds, such as those modeled by cellular automata.
I don't think it has much to do with infinity. -- __________ |im |yler http://timtyler.org/
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